Get access to the detailed solutions to the previous years questions asked in CMAT exam.
1 CMAT 2022
In a batch of 50 students has ratio of Boys to Girls as 4:6. Average marks of Girls are 60 and Average marks of the batch is 62. Average Marks of Boys will be:
61
63
62
65
2 CMAT 2022
Four sheep farmers rented a pasture, Anil grazed his 24 sheep for 3 months, Bimal 10 sheep for 5 months, Champak 35 sheep for 4 months and Damodar 21 sheep for 3 months,. If Anil’s share of rent is Rs. 720, find the total rent of the pasture :
Rs.3,200
Rs.3,250
Rs.2,300
Rs.4,000
3 CMAT 2022
A copper wire having length of 243m and diameter 4 mm was melted to form a sphere. Find the diameter of the sphere :
17 m
18 cm
15 cm
20 cm
4 CMAT 2022
If the cost price is 80% of the selling price, then what is the profit in percentage?
20%
25%
16%
22.5%
5 CMAT 2022
In a bag there are 15 red balls and 10 green balls. Three balls are selected at random. The probability of selecting 2 red balls and 1 green ball is :
21/46
25/117
3/25
1/50
6 CMAT 2022
With an average speed of 40 km/hr, a train reaches its destination in time. If it goes with an average speed of 30 km/hr, it is late
by 36 minutes. The total distance travelled by train is :
72 km
78 km
60 km
40 km
7 CMAT 2022
A man borrows Rs 4000 at 15% compound interest. At the end of each year he pays back Rs 1500. How much amount is required to pay at the end of third year to clear all his dues :
Rs.775.75
Rs.973.85
Rs.1500
Rs.874.75
8 CMAT 2022
The following pie chart embodies the details about the per cent production by seven different companies A-G with the total production for all companies at 1500 units.
(A) Companies A & G are producing more than 500 units
(B) Companies B & F are producing less than 250 units
(C) Companies C & E account for 705 units
(D) Companies D & G are producing less than 200 units
(E) Companies E, F & G account for 545 units
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Only (A) & (B) are true
Only (B) & (C) are true
Only (D) & (E) are true
Only (A) & (E) are true
9 CMAT 2022
In a local election between two candidates, one candidate got 55% of the total valid votes and was declared as winner. 15% of the votes were invalid. If the total number of votes polled were 15200, what were the valid votes of the loser :
6840
5800
5814
6216
10 CMAT 2022
If 1/x is a positive fraction and 1/y is a negative fraction then which of the following statements are true
(A) 1/x + 1/y is positive
(B) 1/x - 1/y is positive
(C) x - y / xy is negative
(D) 1 / xy is positive
(E) 1/x2 - 1/y2 is positive
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Only (A) & (B) are true
Only (B) & (C) are true
Only (D) & (E) are true
Only (A) & (E) are true
11 CMAT 2022
The average age of three friends is 20 years and their ages are in the proportion 2:3:5, the age of the oldest friend is :
12 years
18 years
30 years
40 years
12 CMAT 2022
Match List I with List II. The following table embodies the details about the enrollment of students in five different activities namely Swimming, Singing, Drawing, Dancing and Handicraft in a School during the session 2020-21. A total number of 3000 students including 1750 girls have been enrolled in various activities in the school. Based on the data in the table, match the following :
Activity-wise Enrollment of Students
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
(A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
13 CMAT 2022
If a 30 meter ladder is placed against a wall such that it just reaches the top of the wall, if the horizontal distance between the wall and the base of the ladder is 1/3rd of the length of ladder, then the height of wall is :
25 meter
20 √2 meter
20 √3 meter
20 meter
14 CMAT 2022
Directions for Q.14 to Q.16:
Consider the following table that shows the percentage (%) distribution of workforce of India and ratio of male to female workforce of India in different employment sectors during a given year. Total workforce in all the sectors put together is 60 lakhs. Based on the data contained in the table, answer the question :
Sector-wise Distribution of Workforce of India
The number of male workforce in SA and MA sectors put together is approximately what percent of the total number of workforce in PT sector?
82%
87%
89%
85%
15 CMAT 2022
Directions for Q.14 to Q.16:
Consider the following table that shows the percentage (%) distribution of workforce of India and ratio of male to female workforce of India in different employment sectors during a given year. Total workforce in all the sectors put together is 60 lakhs. Based on the data contained in the table, answer the question :
Sector-wise Distribution of Workforce of India
The number of female workforce in SE and PR sectors put together is what percent of the number of male workforce in CM sector?
330%
318%
320%
80%
16 CMAT 2022
Directions for Q.14 to Q.16:
Consider the following table that shows the percentage (%) distribution of workforce of India and ratio of male to female workforce of India in different employment sectors during a given year. Total workforce in all the sectors put together is 60 lakhs. Based on the data contained in the table, answer the question :
Sector-wise Distribution of Workforce of India
The difference in the number of female workforce in SA and MA sectors put together and the number of female workforce in PT sector is :
5.1 lakhs
7.5 lakhs
5.6 lakhs
13.2 lakhs
17 CMAT 2022
one pipe can fill a tank three times as fast as another pipe. If the two pipes together can fill the tank in 36 minutes, then the slower pipe will take how much time to fill the tank alone?
81 minutes
108 minutes
192 minutes
144 minutes
18 CMAT 2022
A bag contains 6 red balls, 11 yellow balls and 5 pink balls. If two balls are drawn at a random from the bag, one after another. What is the probability that the first ball drawn was red and the second ball drawn was yellow in colour?
3/14
5/7
1/7
1/14
19 CMAT 2022
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : The set of numbers (7,8,9,a,b,10,8,7) has an arithmetic mean of 9 and mode(most frequently occurring number) as 8, Then a x b = 120.
Statement II : Let a and b be two positive integers such that a + b + a x b = 84, then a + b =20.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
20 CMAT 2022
If (x + y) = 3, xy = 2, then what is the value of x3 + y3:
6
7
8
9
21 CMAT 2022
A statement is followed by assumption I and II. An assumption is supposed to be taken for granted. Consider the statement and the assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement : The Government has decided to relocate all the brick kilns away from the city.
Assumption I : Pollution in the city is being caused only because of the brick Kilns in the city
Assumption II : Workers shall be able to travel daily to the new site of Brick Kilns
Only assumption I is implicit
Only assumption II is implicit
Either assumption I or assumption II is implicit
Neither of the assumption is implicit
22 CMAT 2022
Each of the five balls, such as Red, Blue, Yellow, Black and Green is of a different weight. It is known that:
(i) Black ball is heavier than the Red and Blue balls.
(ii) Yellow ball is lighter than the Red ball.
(iii) Blue ball is heavier than the Red and Green balls.
Which ball could be the lightest one?
Only Green
Either Yellow or Green
Only Yellow
Either Yellow or Red
23 CMAT 2022
In a college 200 students are randomly chosen. 140 like tea and 120 like Coffee and 70 like both tea and coffee. How many like neither tea nor coffee?
20
30
50
10
24 CMAT 2022
Complete the series; DIT, GMQ, KQM, PUH,____
VYB
UYB
VXC
TUJ
25 CMAT 2022
Ram travelled towards East from his office. After travelling 10 Km, he took a right turn and covered 2 km. Then he took a 45 Degree turn in clockwise direction and travels 3 km. In which direction is he travelling now?
North East
North
South West
South East
26 CMAT 2022
At 3’O Clock, if Hour hand points towards West, in which
direction will the minute hand points at 7.45 p.m.
West
East
South
South East
27 CMAT 2022
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : Money can resolve most of our problems.
Reason (R) : We are living in a hierarchical society.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
28 CMAT 2022
Complete the series; FAQ, AQF, ___, FAQ, AQF
QAF
QFA
FQA
AFQ
29 CMAT 2022
B, C, D, E, G, H are six persons sitting in a row, not necessarily in the same order. Two persons are sitting between C and G. C is placed to the immediate left of B. D is the first one in the row. C and H are not sitting together. Which one/ones of the following represent/s the correct arrangement of their sitting?
(A) D, H, G, E, B, C
(B) D, C, B, H, G, E
(C) D, G, H, E, C, B
(D) D, G, E, H, C, B
Arrangement (A) & (B) are correct.
Arrangement (B) & (C) are correct.
Arrangement (C) & (D) are correct.
Arrangement (D) & (A) are correct.
30 CMAT 2022
144 is related to 77 in the same way as 168 is related to_____.
87
88
65
89
31 CMAT 2022
A device classifies numbers according to the following criteria. The number must have
(A) The number has five digits
(B) First and last digits are perfect squares.
(C) The middle digit is an odd number and it is an addition of first and last digits.
(D) Second and fourth digits are the difference between first and third digits, third and fifth digits.
Which of the following number could be correct according to the conditions given above?
14514
94514
44949
93524
32 CMAT 2022
Select the pair which has following type of relationship;
Circle: Circumference
Square : Area
Cylinder : Volume
Rectangle : Perimeter
Prism : Sides
33 CMAT 2022
Find the odd one among the following:
Cabbage
Potato
Onion
Lettuce
34 CMAT 2022
Six students P,Q,R,S,T and U are sitting around a Hexagonal table each at one corner and facing the center of hexagon. P is second to the left of U, Q is neighbor of R and S. T is second to the left of S. Who is on the right of R?
Q
P
S
U
36 CMAT 2022
A is the sister of B’s father-in-law. A and C are siblings. D is the husband of B. How is D related to A?
Sister-in-law
Brother
Aunt
Mother-in-law
37 CMAT 2022
In the following question, an assertion is followed by two reasons R1 and R2. Read the assertion and the reasons and find which
of the reasons is possible.
Assertion : The 10th class result is very poor this year.
R1 : Number of students in 10th class have increased considerably
R2 : The students of 10th class belong to different sections of society.
Only R1 is possible reason
Only R2 is possible reason
Neither R1 nor R2 are the reasons
If both R1 and R2 are the possible reasons
38 CMAT 2022
Suraj walked 6 m facing towards the west, then he took a left turn and walked a distance of 8 m. He then took a right turn and walked a distance of 6 m. He then walked for 10 m in the north-east direction. Approximately, how far is he from the starting point?
8 m
10 m
6 m
2 m
39 CMAT 2022
In a certain code language, ‘^’ means ‘is less than’, ‘#’ means ‘is greater than’ and ‘*’ means ‘is equal to’ and given that a^b, c*d, and c#b, then which of the following is true?
d^a
b#d
a*c
a^b^c
40 CMAT 2022
A,B,C,D,E and F are six members of a family. A is mother of B, who is the husband of D. F is the brother of one of the parents of C. D is the daughter in law of E and has no siblings. C is son of D. How is C related to A?
Son
Grandson
Brother
Brother in law
41 CMAT 2022
Choose the option which is opposite in meaning to the following word: Intrepid
Amiable
Fiendish
Tranquil
Cowardly
42 CMAT 2022
Please fill the blanks with the help of correct word from pairs given below and complete the sentence:
(elicit / illicit; council / counsel; hoard / horde; dependents / defendants)
(a) He was charged with _______ sale of narcotics.
(b) The Chief Minister was given a ________ to keep off the epidemic.
(c) A _________ of terrorists have attacked the army base.
(d) The _________ of the university employees are granted full free-fellowship.
(a) Elicit; (b) Council; (c) Hoard; (d) Dependents
(a) Illicit; (b) Council; (c) Horde; (d) Defendants
(a) Elicit; (b) Counsel; (c) Hoard; (d) Defendants
(a) Illicit; (b) Counsel; (c) Horde; (d) Dependents
43 CMAT 2022
Pick the appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the following sentence:
“The lease of our premises has run out.”
Enfeebled
Expired
Increased
Prolonged
44 CMAT 2022
The word “veteran” means:
A person who has fought elections
A person who treats animals
A person who has long experience
A person who lives on vegetables
45 CMAT 2022
Pick the appropriate meaning of the underlined phrase in the following sentence:
“In market economy capital gets lion’s share in production.”
adequate part
lesser part
larger part
None of these
46 CMAT 2022
Pick the correct sentence:
He made a fool of certainly himself.
Certainly he made a fool of himself.
Certainly a fool he made of himself.
He made a certainly fool of himself.
47 CMAT 2022
Pick the correct option:
(I) It is nothing else than pride.
(II) It is nothing else but pride.
(I) is correct but (II) is incorrect
(I) is incorrect but (II) is correct
Both (I) & (II) are correct
Both (I) & (II) are incorrect
48 CMAT 2022
Pick the synonym of “confess”:
Agree
Admit
Understand
Decide
49 CMAT 2022
Pick the appropriate meaning of the underlined phrase in the following sentence: “You can be happy only when following the golden mean.”
opulent way of life
middle path
golden path
meanness
50 CMAT 2022
Directions for Q.50 to Q.53: Read the following passage and answer the question that follow:
Urbanization - the demographic shift from country to city - began with industrialization, and it has not let up. In 1900, fewer than 15 percent of the world’s population lived in cities. Fifty years later, that number had doubled to 30 percent of the world’s population of 750 million. By 2000, 2.9 billion people, or 47 percent of the world’s population, were living in urban areas, with the greatest growth occurring in Africa, Asia, and Latin America. In 2007, for the first time in history, the urban population exceeded 50 percent, and by 2050, according to World Health Organization (WHO), seven out of ten people will call urban areas home….
Contrary to common belief, fewer than 10 percent of urban dwellers are residents of megacities with populations of over ten million. A megacity consists of the city proper and its adjoining suburban centers. An example is the New York-Newark aggregation, which in 1950 was the world’s only megacity; by 2011, it was the sixth largest of 21 megacities. The population of Greater Tokyo, the world’s largest urban area and home to 36.7 million residents, is forecast to exceed 37 million by 2020.Megaciites Mumbai, Delhi, Dhaka, and Lagos, which do not yet appear on the Top Ten list, are steadily moving up the ladder. About half of the world’s urban dwellers live in cities of under half a million people, and these cities continue to outpace megacities in growth.
While the benefits of developed infrastructure, public transportation system, employment opportunities, better health care, and education, plus a wide range of services, make cities the place to live, work, and enjoy, they are plagued with enormous problems. As engines of growth, cities have also become engines of pollution, traffic congestion, waste production, and environmental destruction….
In the 1960s, the concept of urban ecology emerged from the growing awareness of cities’ impact on the environment. In 1975, the nonprofit organization Urban Ecology was founded in Berkeley, California, with the purpose of rebuilding cities in balance with nature. The 1992 Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro established Agenda 21, a plan for the sustainable development of cities, and in 2002, 1,200 representatives (including 200 slum dwellers) from 80 countries participated in the first World Urban Forum, making urban ecology and sustainable eco-cities based on environment, economy, education, equity more than just a nice idea.
Match each of the following meanings with the corresponding underlined words/phrases in the numbered items below:
(i) Reaching a higher position
(ii) Seriously suffering from
(iii) The absolute best
(iv) Something not very practical
A. “Megacities Mumbai, Delhi, Dhaka, and Lagos, which do not yet appear on the Top Ten list, are steadily moving up the ladder.”
B. “... the benefits of developed infrastructure, public transportation system, employment opportunities, better health care, and education, plus a wide range of services, make cities the place to live, work, and enjoy....”
C. “... they are plagued with enormous problems.”
D. “... making urban ecology and sustainable ecocities based on environment, economy, education, equity more than just a nice idea.”
A-(i); B-(ii); C-(iii); D-(iv)
A-(iv); B-(iii); C-(ii); D-(i)
A-(i); B-(iii); C-(ii); D-(iv)
A-(iii); B-(ii); C-(iv); D-(i)
51 CMAT 2022
Directions for Q.50 to Q.53: Read the following passage and answer the question that follow:
Urbanization - the demographic shift from country to city - began with industrialization, and it has not let up. In 1900, fewer than 15 percent of the world’s population lived in cities. Fifty years later, that number had doubled to 30 percent of the world’s population of 750 million. By 2000, 2.9 billion people, or 47 percent of the world’s population, were living in urban areas, with the greatest growth occurring in Africa, Asia, and Latin America. In 2007, for the first time in history, the urban population exceeded 50 percent, and by 2050, according to World Health Organization (WHO), seven out of ten people will call urban areas home….
Contrary to common belief, fewer than 10 percent of urban dwellers are residents of megacities with populations of over ten million. A megacity consists of the city proper and its adjoining suburban centers. An example is the New York-Newark aggregation, which in 1950 was the world’s only megacity; by 2011, it was the sixth largest of 21 megacities. The population of Greater Tokyo, the world’s largest urban area and home to 36.7 million residents, is forecast to exceed 37 million by 2020.Megaciites Mumbai, Delhi, Dhaka, and Lagos, which do not yet appear on the Top Ten list, are steadily moving up the ladder. About half of the world’s urban dwellers live in cities of under half a million people, and these cities continue to outpace megacities in growth.
While the benefits of developed infrastructure, public transportation system, employment opportunities, better health care, and education, plus a wide range of services, make cities the place to live, work, and enjoy, they are plagued with enormous problems. As engines of growth, cities have also become engines of pollution, traffic congestion, waste production, and environmental destruction….
In the 1960s, the concept of urban ecology emerged from the growing awareness of cities’ impact on the environment. In 1975, the nonprofit organization Urban Ecology was founded in Berkeley, California, with the purpose of rebuilding cities in balance with nature. The 1992 Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro established Agenda 21, a plan for the sustainable development of cities, and in 2002, 1,200 representatives (including 200 slum dwellers) from 80 countries participated in the first World Urban Forum, making urban ecology and sustainable eco-cities based on environment, economy, education, equity more than just a nice idea.
Megacities are classified according to __________.
population
territorial area
their ecological footprint
their GDP
52 CMAT 2022
Directions for Q.50 to Q.53: Read the following passage and answer the question that follow:
Urbanization - the demographic shift from country to city - began with industrialization, and it has not let up. In 1900, fewer than 15 percent of the world’s population lived in cities. Fifty years later, that number had doubled to 30 percent of the world’s population of 750 million. By 2000, 2.9 billion people, or 47 percent of the world’s population, were living in urban areas, with the greatest growth occurring in Africa, Asia, and Latin America. In 2007, for the first time in history, the urban population exceeded 50 percent, and by 2050, according to World Health Organization (WHO), seven out of ten people will call urban areas home….
Contrary to common belief, fewer than 10 percent of urban dwellers are residents of megacities with populations of over ten million. A megacity consists of the city proper and its adjoining suburban centers. An example is the New York-Newark aggregation, which in 1950 was the world’s only megacity; by 2011, it was the sixth largest of 21 megacities. The population of Greater Tokyo, the world’s largest urban area and home to 36.7 million residents, is forecast to exceed 37 million by 2020.Megaciites Mumbai, Delhi, Dhaka, and Lagos, which do not yet appear on the Top Ten list, are steadily moving up the ladder. About half of the world’s urban dwellers live in cities of under half a million people, and these cities continue to outpace megacities in growth.
While the benefits of developed infrastructure, public transportation system, employment opportunities, better health care, and education, plus a wide range of services, make cities the place to live, work, and enjoy, they are plagued with enormous problems. As engines of growth, cities have also become engines of pollution, traffic congestion, waste production, and environmental destruction….
In the 1960s, the concept of urban ecology emerged from the growing awareness of cities’ impact on the environment. In 1975, the nonprofit organization Urban Ecology was founded in Berkeley, California, with the purpose of rebuilding cities in balance with nature. The 1992 Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro established Agenda 21, a plan for the sustainable development of cities, and in 2002, 1,200 representatives (including 200 slum dwellers) from 80 countries participated in the first World Urban Forum, making urban ecology and sustainable eco-cities based on environment, economy, education, equity more than just a nice idea.
Indicate which of the two statements in the following pairs contains a main idea (M) and which contains a supporting details (SD)?
(I) Tokyo is the world’s largest megacity.
(II) Megacities are growing, but not as rapidly as smaller cities.
I - M & II - SD
I - SD & II - M
I & II both M
I & II both SD
53 CMAT 2022
Directions for Q.50 to Q.53: Read the following passage and answer the question that follow:
Urbanization - the demographic shift from country to city - began with industrialization, and it has not let up. In 1900, fewer than 15 percent of the world’s population lived in cities. Fifty years later, that number had doubled to 30 percent of the world’s population of 750 million. By 2000, 2.9 billion people, or 47 percent of the world’s population, were living in urban areas, with the greatest growth occurring in Africa, Asia, and Latin America. In 2007, for the first time in history, the urban population exceeded 50 percent, and by 2050, according to World Health Organization (WHO), seven out of ten people will call urban areas home….
Contrary to common belief, fewer than 10 percent of urban dwellers are residents of megacities with populations of over ten million. A megacity consists of the city proper and its adjoining suburban centers. An example is the New York-Newark aggregation, which in 1950 was the world’s only megacity; by 2011, it was the sixth largest of 21 megacities. The population of Greater Tokyo, the world’s largest urban area and home to 36.7 million residents, is forecast to exceed 37 million by 2020.Megaciites Mumbai, Delhi, Dhaka, and Lagos, which do not yet appear on the Top Ten list, are steadily moving up the ladder. About half of the world’s urban dwellers live in cities of under half a million people, and these cities continue to outpace megacities in growth.
While the benefits of developed infrastructure, public transportation system, employment opportunities, better health care, and education, plus a wide range of services, make cities the place to live, work, and enjoy, they are plagued with enormous problems. As engines of growth, cities have also become engines of pollution, traffic congestion, waste production, and environmental destruction….
In the 1960s, the concept of urban ecology emerged from the growing awareness of cities’ impact on the environment. In 1975, the nonprofit organization Urban Ecology was founded in Berkeley, California, with the purpose of rebuilding cities in balance with nature. The 1992 Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro established Agenda 21, a plan for the sustainable development of cities, and in 2002, 1,200 representatives (including 200 slum dwellers) from 80 countries participated in the first World Urban Forum, making urban ecology and sustainable eco-cities based on environment, economy, education, equity more than just a nice idea.
What does the phrasal verb “let up” means in the first sentence:
to come to an end
to be less successful
not to be working
to be less strong
54 CMAT 2022
Select the pair which has the same relationship as the pair below:
Whale: Pod
Wolf: Pack
Plant: Sprout
Hand: Fingers
Car: Garage
55 CMAT 2022
Identify the correct direct speech form of the following sentence:
My teacher told me that I am not working hard.
My teacher told to me, “You are not working hard.”
My teacher said, “You are not working hard.”
My teacher said to him, “I am not working hard.”
My teacher said to me, “You are not working hard.”
56 CMAT 2022
Choose the correct alternative to replace the italicized phrase in the following sentence. In case no improvement is needed, option '4' is the answer. I cannot force her to marrying.
to marry
in marrying
for marry
No improvement needed
57 CMAT 2022
Find the correctly spelt word.
Klaptomania
Klepptomania
Kleptemania
Kleptomania
58 CMAT 2022
Choose the correct verb form to fill in the blanks:
That there would be thunderstorm today was ______by the weather experts.
foretold
foreteld
fortelling
foretell
59 CMAT 2022
Choose the correct preposition to complete the sentence:
Roopam hasn’t seen her father_______________ last September.
on
in
for
since
60 CMAT 2022
Choose the correct order of the sentence to create a meaning out of PQRS set:
This work
P: there emerges a picture spread over three generations
Q: which depicts the rapidity of change
R: devotees form a considerable amount of attention to local detail,
S: and from such a realistic perspective
Codes:
PQRS
RSPQ
SQPR
QSPR
61 CMAT 2022
The term butterfly is associated with
Kabaddi
Boxing
Swimming
Wrestling
62 CMAT 2022
Change in Seasons occur due to
(A) Earth’s rotation
(B) Earth’s Revolution
(C) Inclination of Earth axis
Choose the correct options from the options given below:
(A) and (B) only
(B) and (C) only
(A) and (C) only
(A), (B) and (C)
63 CMAT 2022
Which of the following is true regarding Vehicle Scrapping Policy recently announced by the Centre?
State governments have been advised to offer road tax rebate up to 25% for personal vehicles and manufacturers to provide 5% discount on purchase of a new vehicle against the scrapping certificate.
State governments have been advised to offer road tax rebate up to 50% for personal vehicles and manufacturers to provide 10% discount on purchase of a new vehicle against the scrapping certificate.
State governments have been advised to offer road tax rebate up to 33% for personal vehicles and manufacturers to provide 7% discount on purchase of a new vehicle against the scrapping certificate.
State governments have been advised to offer road tax rebate up to 40% for personal vehicles and manufacturers to provide 3% discount on purchase of a new vehicle against the scrapping certificate.
State governments have been advised to offer road tax rebate up to 25% for personal vehicles and manufacturers to provide 5% discount on purchase of a new vehicle against the scrapping certificate.
64 CMAT 2022
Article 356 of the Constitution of India provides for
Reservation of the jobs for backward classes
Protection of religious monument
Imposition of President’s rule in a State
Right to Education
65 CMAT 2022
Prof. Amartya Sen was honoured with
(A) UNESCO PEACE Prize
(B) BHARAT RATNA
(C) NOBEL PRIZE
Choose the correct options from the options given below:
(A) and (B) only
(B) and (C) only
(A) and (C) only
(A), (B) and (C)
66 CMAT 2022
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Indian Constitution uses the word ‘minority’ to mean ‘any sections of citizens’ having a distinct language, script or culture.
Statement II : This may be a whole community living within a majority community.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
67 CMAT 2022
Who among the following was a French journalist and novelist known for his series of 20 novels collectively known as Les Rougon-Macquart?
Jean Paul Sartre
Albert Camus
Jean Baudrillard
Emile Zola
68 CMAT 2022
The total number of Judges of International Court of Justice is
10
12
15
18
69 CMAT 2022
Match List I with List II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)-(i), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)
(A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)
(A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)
(A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)
70 CMAT 2022
Which form of Indian dance shows influence of Persian culture?
Bhangra
Kathak
Rangma
Chhau
71 CMAT 2022
Choose the correct chronological sequence of the following:-
(A) Gandhi-Irwin Pact
(B) Nehru Report
(C) Non-Cooperation Movement
(D) Quit India Movement
(C), (D), (A), (B)
(C), (B), (A), (D)
(B), (C), (D), (A)
(B), (C), (A), (D)
72 CMAT 2022
In banking sector GNPA refers to?
Gross Non-performing Advances
Gross National Performing Assets
Gross National Productive Assets
Gratuitous Non-performing Advances
73 CMAT 2022
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Our lungs have two parts - the left and right lungs.
Statement II : structurally two parts of the lungs are different from each other.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
A Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
B Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
C Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
D Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
74 CMAT 2022
The first country to be labelled as ‘banana Republic’ was
A Bermuda
B Honduras
C El Salvador
D Haiti
75 CMAT 2022
Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)
(A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
(A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)
(A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
76 CMAT 2022
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Food is cooked in pressure cooker quickly because it retains heat for a longer period.
Statement II : Food is cooked in pressure cooker quickly because boiling point of water increases.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
Both Statement I and Statement II are true, Option ID :-2157,
Both Statement I and Statement II are false, Option ID:- 2158,
Statement I is true but Statement II is false, Option ID:- 2159,
Statement I is false but Statement II is true, Option ID:- 2160,
77 CMAT 2022
On what does the dollar-rupee exchange rate in India depend ?
A Demand-supply equilibrium
B Monetary Policy of RBI
C Government control
D The stock market fluctuations
78 CMAT 2022
Match List I with List II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)-(i), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)
(A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)
(A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)
(A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)
79 CMAT 2022
Who among the following rulers belongs to Slave Dynasty?
A Shershah Suri
B Muhammed Ghori
C Shams-ud-din Iltutmish
D Humayun
80 CMAT 2022
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Bodo is one of the scheduled languages of India.
Statement II : Nepali is one of the scheduled languages of India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
81 CMAT 2022
Shishu', 'Kishore' and 'Tarun' are the three products created by __________ to signify the stage of growth/development and funding needs of the beneficiary micro unit/entrepreneur and also provide a reference point for the next phase of graduation/growth.
A MUDRA Yojana
B Jan Dhan Yojana
C Ayushman Bharat Yojana
D None of the above
82 CMAT 2022
Match List I with List II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A (A)-(i), (B)-(iv), (C)-(iii), (D)-(ii)
B (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
C (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)
D (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)
83 CMAT 2022
Please select the most appropriate reason for the government’s increasing role in business globally
A Costs of production have continued to increase
B People's attitudes have changed
C Products have become very technical
D Competition in the marketplace has changed
84 CMAT 2022
Having more than one customer segment:
A Can never be beneficial as this makes an entrepreneur lose focus
B Can never be beneficial as it brings in undesired complexity
C Can be beneficial as it helps maintain consistent business throughout the year
D Can be beneficial as it helps reduce costs
C Can be beneficial as it helps maintain consistent business throughout the year
85 CMAT 2022
An entrepreneur can get a lot of quality information about competitors from_________.
A Company reports and published accounts
B Product information leaflets
C Websites
D All the above
86 CMAT 2022
Sequoia capital is a/an:
A Angel investor
B Venture capital firm
C Fintech Start-up
D None of the above
87 CMAT 2022
Founders translate company ideas into business model hypotheses, test assumptions about customers’ needs, and then create a ______________to try out their proposed solution on customers.
A Beta version
B Brand
C Minimum viable product
D Service
88 CMAT 2022
Match List I with List II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
B (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)
C (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)
D (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
89 CMAT 2022
According to Schumpeter, which of the following is the primary function of a new age entrepreneur
A Creativity
B Innovation
C Invention
D Skill
90 CMAT 2022
Shruti wants to start a small floral shop. As a part of her business plan, he prepared an "entertaining MS PowerPoint Presentation" to garner interest among potential investors and trigger discussion. This format of business plan is known as
A Business Talk
B Business Plan
C Pitch deck
D Presentation
91 CMAT 2022
ATAL Innovation Mission aims to create and promote culture of:
A Innovation & energy conservation
B Innovation & Entrepreneurship
C Entrepreneurship & energy conservation
D Strategy and Entrepreneurship
92 CMAT 2022
Which one of the following factors is not relevant for judging the adequacy of market?
A Total Present Domestic Market
B Competitors and their market shares
C Export Market
D Labour Market
93 CMAT 2022
Document that projects the income, expenses, and profits of a business over a multi-year period
A Technical Plan
B Marketing Plan
C Financial Plan
D Management Plan
94 CMAT 2022
Match List I with List II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
B (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
C (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)
D (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)
95 CMAT 2022
Please provide the full form for CGTMSE, a scheme meant for Micro and Small Enterprises
A Credit Guarantee Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises
B Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises
C Credit Guarantee Fund towards Micro and Small Enterprises
D Collateral Guarantee Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises
96 CMAT 2022
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : ‘Diversification’ means adding new lines of business.
Statement II : Differentiation means creating specialized products that gain competitive advantage with a particular segment of the market.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
A Both Statement I and Statement II are true
B Both Statement I and Statement II are false
C Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D Statement I is false but Statement II is true
97 CMAT 2022
Which of the following terms appropriately refers to the attractive idea that an entrepreneur invests in?
A Opportunity
B Possibility
C Business
D Notion
98 CMAT 2022
A professional or manager who takes a new initiative for his/her organisation and establish a new distinct business unit for the same organisation can appropriately be referred as:
A Business Leader
B Industrialist
C Entrepreneur
D Intrapreneur
99 CMAT 2022
The five phases of the entrepreneurial process are:
A Opportunity evaluation, planning, idea generation, growth, company formation/launch
B Idea generation, growth, opportunity evaluation, planning, company formation/launch
C Idea generation, growth, company formation/launch, opportunity evaluation,planning
D Idea generation, opportunity evaluation, planning, company formation/launch, growth
D Idea generation, opportunity evaluation, planning, company formation/launch, growth
100 CMAT 2022
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Ideas should not be examined for their reallife use and application.
Statement II : Business opportunity can be described as an economic idea that can be implemented to create business enterprises and earn profits.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
A Both Statement I and Statement II are true
B Both Statement I and Statement II are false
C Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D Statement I is false but Statement II is true